CollapseProblem 943Let AAA be the set of powerful numbers (if p∣np\mid np∣n then p2∣np^2\mid np2∣n). Is it true that 1A∗1A(n)=no(1)1_A\ast 1_A(n)=n^{o(1)}1A∗1A(n)=no(1) for every nnn?Source: erdosproblems.com/943Number theoryPowerful numbersWiki pageStatusOpenNo claim settles this problem.