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Let be a set of cardinality and be a function from the finite subsets of to such that for all . Must there exist an infinite that is independent - that is, for all finite we have ?
Source: erdosproblems.com/623
A full solution has been claimed but not yet accepted. The statement can be neither proved nor disproved from the standard axioms of set theory.
Open. The site's label is OPEN; the results claimed against the problem are recorded on the claim pages, and the standing in the frontmatter is derived from them.