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Let be a set of positive measure. Is it true that, for almost all , for all sufficiently large (depending on ) integers there exists an integer such that ?
Source: erdosproblems.com/1197
An accepted solution exists. The statement is false.
DISPROVED (LEAN), the site's label. Enrique Barschkis, posting as ebarschkis, constructed a measurable set of positive measure and an interval of on which infinitely many put outside every , by varying the Buczolich–Mauldin construction; the accepted claim is Barschkis's counterexample, credited by the site's curator and not refereed. The Lean proofs behind the site's qualification are linked on the claim page; none was built here.